Reading the phase 2 write-up next to the injectable trials, and the comparison people keep making does not survive putting the two protocols side by side.
Phase 2: about 14.7% at 36 weeks on 45mg, GI adverse events broadly in line with the injectables, no food-timing requirement.
The narrow version of the question is whether a non-peptide oral agonist can match injectable exposure in practice, or whether the convenience is bought with a lower ceiling.
Practical detail welcome, however dull — the duller the better.
This one has a reasonably settled answer, so here it is. It helps to ask what evidence would change your mind before you look at any. If nothing would, the discussion is not about evidence, and it is better to say so early than to spend nine posts discovering it.
pete_manc_UK said:It helps to ask what evidence would change your mind before you look at any.
No disagreement with pete_manc_UK. One condition attached. The manufacturing argument is the underrated one. Peptide synthesis capacity has been the binding constraint on this entire class, and a small molecule is made in ordinary chemical plants. If it holds up in phase 3, the supply and price picture changes more than the efficacy picture does.
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View ResultsLabKate said:Reading the phase 2 write-up next to the injectable trials, and the comparison people keep making does not survive putting the two protocols side by…
Second this.
Adding the clinical framing, because it changes how the question reads. The distinction that resolves most of these threads is between what is true on average and what is true for one person. Both are real; they answer different questions and get quoted as if they were the same one.