Following on from Dr.SleepRoch — and this may be the naive question:
How much of the between-person variation is pharmacokinetic and how much is just adherence measured badly?
stefan_berlin said:Following this thread I went back and re-read the extension data properly.
Pushing back on stefan_berlin here. Not convinced. The evidence being cited is consistent with the conclusion and also consistent with two other conclusions nobody has ruled out.
stefan_berlin said:Following this thread I went back and re-read the extension data properly.
No disagreement, though it depends on where somebody is starting from, and this thread has been assuming a starting point nobody stated.
I would rather be corrected than agreed with, if it comes to it.
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View Resultsstefan_berlin said:Following this thread I went back and re-read the extension data properly.
That reframing is the part I needed. Sending this to two other people who asked me the same thing last week.
Adding the clinical framing, because it changes how the question reads. Worth answering the question that was asked rather than the one behind it. The narrow version usually has an answer; the broad version usually does not, and answering the broad one is how a thread stops being useful.
I would rather be corrected than agreed with, if it comes to it.